NCLEX Practice Questions RN+PN 7/7

1. Select the member of the healthcare team that is paired with one of the main functions of this team member.

2. The recommended daily caloric intake for sedentary older men, active adult women and children is:

3. Ill health, malnutrition, and wasting as a result of chronic disease are all associated with:

4. Select all the possible opportunistic infections that adversely affect HIV/AIDS infected patients.

5. What can help reduce a patient’s anxiety and postsurgical pain?

6. Which disease decreases the metabolic rate?

7. When caring for an infant during cardiac arrest, which pulse must be palpated to determine cardiac function?

8. The patient should be sitting when deep breathing and coughing  because this position:

9. Which procedures necessitate the use of surgical asepsis techniques? Select all that apply.

10. What is the ultimate purpose and goal of performance improvement activities?

11. The primary difference between practical nursing licensure and a nursing certification in an area of practice is that nursing licensure is:

12. What intervention is the best to relieve constipation during pregnancy?

13. You are the LPN working on 2 east with adult medical surgical patients. Your unit has been instructed to perform a horizontal evacuation of your patients because there is a fire on 1 east. Where will you evacuate your patients to?

14. Which electrolyte is essential for enzyme and neurochemical activities?

15. Number the choices below to reflect the correct sequence for using a fire extinguisher:

16. As you are working you suspect that another licensed practical nurse is verbally and physically abusing a patient. What is the first thing that you will do?

17. Which of the following is the World Health Organization’s (WHO) definition of health?

18. Which nursing theorist believes that most patients are capable of performing self care?

19. What element is minimally assessed during a basic prenatal physical examination?

20. A positive over-the-counter pregnancy test is considered a:

21. Select all of the signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism.

22. During which phase of the nursing process does data get collected and validated with the patient and/or family members by the nurse?

23. Which of the following is the best worded expected outcome?

24. What is a major difference between a problem oriented medical record and a source oriented medical record?

25. Which of the following are necessary elements of malpractice? Select all that apply.

26. Select the following fire emergency interventions in correct sequential order.

27. After your patient has been told that they have Cushing’s syndrome, the patient asks you what Cushing’s syndrome is. How would you respond to this patient’s question?

28. You are preparing a sterile field for a operating room surgical procedure. When should you stop the preparation of this sterile field?

29. Avulsed teeth should be placed in:

30. You are working in a pediatric unit of the hospital and caring for a six year old boy who is hospitalized with cystic fibrosis and respiratory compromise. Which developmental task is the challenge for this boy at his age?

31. The embryonic period during pregnancy takes place from:

32. Place these human needs in order from the greatest priority to the least priority using # 1 as the greatest priority and # 5 as the least of all in terms of priority.

33. During which week does the fetal heart begin pumping its own blood?

34. Which of the following is a vector of infection?

35. Which oral disorder appears as yellow or white spots on the oral mucosa that are not possible to scrape off without bleeding?

36. Which type of cancer has the poorest prognosis?

37. States throughout our nation vary somewhat in terms of things that nursing assistants can and cannot legally do. Which statements about these state to state differences are accurate? Select all that apply

38. A cesarean mode of delivery, often utilized for various reasons, is the most common mode for females with which pelvic type?

39. How many bones make up a newborn’s skull?

40. Your patient has just returned from the diagnostic imaging department and the doctor has told the patient that they have a Mallory-Weiss tear. The patient asks you what a Mallory-Weiss tear is. How should you respond to this patient?

41. You have been asked to speak at a new nursing assistants’ orientation class about infection control and handwashing techniques. What would you include in this teaching?

42. How many minims are contained in 1 milliliter?

43. Periwound maceration occurs when:

44. Which patient is at greatest risk for cholelithiasis and choledocholithiasis?

45. Select the method of special precautions that is accurately paired with the personal protective equipment that is minimally required in order to prevent the spread of infection.

46. Which statement about Meniere’s disease is accurate and true?

47. Which of these patients is affected with a healthcare acquired infection?

48. The stages of infection in correct sequential order are:

49. What is the single most important thing that nurses do in order to prevent the spread of infection?

50. Rh negative maternal blood indicates:

51. Low birth weight is defined as a newborn’s weight of:

52. You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is:

53. What percentage of term newborns has a congenital heart disease due to environmental risk factors such as maternal alcoholism or drug ingestion?

54. Who should document care?

55. Your 54 year old male HIV positive patient has just expired. How should you care for this deceased patient?

56. Select the types of pain that are accurately coupled with an example of it. Select all that are correct.

57. Select the stage of viral hepatitis that is accurately paired with its characteristic(s).

58. Which nursing diagnosis is the most commonly used among patients who are affected with fibromyalgia?

59. Alcohol, caffeine, or drugs are high risk factors that all fall under which broad classification of risk factors?

60. Multifetal pregnancies with triplets occur at a rate of 1 in 8,100 births, but twins occur much more frequently with a rate of:

61. When a woman has miscarried in three or more consecutive pregnancies, it is referred to as which type of spontaneous abortion?

62. Your long term care patient has chronic pain and at this point in time the patient needs increasing dosages to adequately control this pain. What is this patient most likely to be affected with?

63. The normal sodium level in the body is:

64. Which type of practice is most similar to research based practice?

65. Select the ethical principles that are paired with their description. Select all that apply.

66. You are caring for a patient with multiple-trauma. Of all of these injuries and conditions, it the most serious?

67. Which statement about appendicitis is accurate and true?

68. Which skin disorder most closely resembles and mimics dandruff?

69. You have just learned that another nurse was fired for taking photographs of patients without their permission using a cell phone and posting them on Face book. This nurse was fired because the nurse has:

70. Which of the following differentiates ulcerative colitis from Crohn’s disease?

71. Which atrioventricular heart block is also referred to as Mobitz II?

72. Which preventive measure can be employed to decrease the risk of compartment syndrome?

73. Which patient is at greatest risk for papilledema?

74. Your patient has been diagnosed with orchititis. What information about this disorder should you inform the patient about?

75. Which of the following healthcare providers can legally have access to all, or part, of a patient’s medical record because they have a “need to know”? Select all that apply.

76. Which cardiac arrhythmia can be either acquired or congenital and can spontaneously disappear on its own or lead to ventricular fibrillation?

77. Which quality assurance or performance improvement technique is used to identify underlying process flaws?

78. Which legal document will most likely contain the patient’s decision to not get cardiopulmonary resuscitation?

79. Select the stage of a pressure ulcer that is accurately pair with its characteristics.

80. You have been assigned to care for a neonate who has been diagnosed with the Tetralogy of Fallot. The mother asks you what the Tetralogy of Fallot is. How should you respond to this mother?

81. The protrusion of an internal organ through a wound or surgical incision is referred to as:

82. Which pain assessment scale is used exclusively for infants and neonates from 32 weeks of gestation to six months of age?

83. Which of the following is a hazard of immobility?

84. How many daily feedings are considered normal for a newborn:

85. The hormone produces mother’s milk is:

86. Which of the following is a life threatening acute complication of diabetes mellitus?

87. Sutures and staples are typically removed following surgery within:

88. Which of these breath sounds is considered normal and not adventitious?

89. Which type of burn leads to the greatest degree of pain?

90. Babies should double their birth weight by the:

91. Which of the following is best for a client who has difficulty swallowing and chokes frequently?

92. How long can women lactate for?

93. Which anatomic malformations are associated with the Tetralogy of Fallot?

94. Your 32 year old female patient has erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea, epistaxis, abdominal pain, fever, cardiac problems and skin nodules. What disorder would you most likely suspect based on these signs and symptoms?

95. Select the cranial nerve that is accurately paired with its name.

96. What is the name of the section marked:
97. 

1. Round off these numbers to the nearest hundredth. Fill in the blanks.

98. Label the following bones of the pelvis:

99. Round off these numbers to the nearest tenth:

100. The doctor has ordered 500 mg of a medication po once a day. The tablets on hand are labeled as 1 tablet = 250 mg. How many tablets will you administer to your patient?

101. Which patient is exercising their right to autonomy in the context of patient rights?

102. The mnemonic “PERLA” is useful for the assessment of the eyes. What does PERLA stand for?

103. You are performing a neurological assessment of your adolescent patient. The patient has the Moro reflex. How should you interpret this neurological assessment finding?

104. Which patient is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease?

105. Your client is adversely affected with fever, night sweats, occult hematuria, tenderness of the spleen and Osler’s nodes. What disorder would you most likely suspect?

106. Your pediatric weighs 15.8 kg. How many pounds does this child weigh?

107. An episiotomy is:

108. How many calories per kilogram does an average full term infant require when the infants is around 1-2 months old?

109. What are the six levels of consciousness from the most to the least responsive level of consciousness. Number all six using 1 as the most conscious and 6 as the least conscious.

110. Select the stage of shock that is accurately paired with its characteristic.

111. The doctor has ordered 1,000 cc of intravenous fluid every 8 hours. You will be using intravenous tubing that delivers 20 cc/drop. At what rate will you adjust the intravenous fluid flow? _____ gtts per minute.

112. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?

113. Select all of the risk factors that are associated with deep vein thrombosis.

114. Most water leaves the body by way of the:

115. Which statement about glaucoma is true and accurate?

116. A cavity containing pus surrounded by inflamed tissue is:

117. The doctor has ordered 20 cc an hour of normal saline intravenously for your pediatric patient. You will be using a pediatric intravenous tubing that delivers 60 cc per drop. How many drops per minute will you administer using this pediatric intravenous set? Fill in the blank. ____ drops per minute.

118. What does the mnemonic device ABCDE stand for?

119. Which of the following assessment tools is used to determine the patients’ level of consciousness?

120. Wilms’ tumor is a form of:

121. You will be reinforcing teaching and instructing the patient. Which basic principle of teaching should you follow?

122. As you are administering penicillin intravenously, you determine that the patient becomes hypotensive and with a bounding, rapid pulse rate. What is the first thing that you would do?

123. Your patient has a blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L. What intervention should you anticipate for this patient?

124. Which of the following foods enhances the absorption of an iron supplement?

125. Select a myth or falsehood relating to pain, pain management and addiction.

126. What is the expected date of delivery for the woman who has had their last menstrual period on April 20^th?

127. Clumsiness, difficulty running, climbing, and riding a bicycle are some of the earliest signs and symptoms of:

128. Which statement about adjuvant medications is true and accurate?

129. Which nonpharmacological technique entails the use of electronic monitoring equipment while the patient controls basic bodily mechanisms?

130. Which of the following is considered normal for the neonate?

131. Your patient has been diagnosed with giant cell arteritis. What medication will this patient most likely be given?

132. The wound irrigation process cleanses the wound and:

133. You are caring for a four year old female patient who was severely burned in a house fire. How would you determine the extent of this child’s burns?

134. Your client has a doctor’s order that reads “advance diet as tolerated”. This client has returned from the recovery room after an appendectomy and he states, “I am hungry”. What would you offer this client to consume?

135. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura is:

136. Select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description.

137. Select the criteria that is accurately paired with its indication of birth weight or gestational age.

138. Diabetes insipidus is the result of:

139. Which position will you place your patient in when they are demonstrating the signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock?

140. The fine, down-like hairs on the newborn’s ears, shoulders, lower back, and/or forehead are known as:

141. What is the softening and thinning of the cervix during labor known as?

142. Which of the following joints normally has 360 degree circumflexion?

143. Which healthcare associated infection is the greatest risk for patients?

144. Select the nursing theorist who is accurately paired with the theory or model of nursing that they are credited with.

145. Which technique or method is used to determine whether or not the patient has an irregular pulse?

146. Select the tactile sensation that is accurately paired with its description or procedure for testing.

147. Which is considered an internal disaster?

148. Who is credited with the stages of cognitive development?

149. You are working on a pediatric unit. Which toy or other diversional item or activity is most appropriate for your 18 month old patient?

150. You are caring for a patient who has no cognitive functioning but only basic human functions such opening the eyes and the sleep – wake cycle. What level of consciousness does this patient have?